Good Natured Home Care LLC

TRAINING - ASSIS SELF-ADMIN MEDS & MED MGMT59A-36.011

TRAINING

TRAINING - ASSIS SELF-ADMIN MEDS & MED MGMT59A-36.011 (6) ASSISTANCE WITH THE SELF-ADMINISTRATION OF MEDICATION AND MEDICATION MANAGEMENT. Unlicensed persons who will be providing assistance with the self-administration of medications as described in rule 59A-36.008, F.A.C., must meet the training requirements pursuant to section 429.52(6), F.S., prior to assuming this responsibility. Courses provided in fulfilment of this requirement must meet the following criteria: (a) Training must cover state law and rule requirements with respect to the supervision, assistance, administration, and management of medications in assisted living facilities; procedures and techniques for assisting the resident with self-administration of medication including how to read a prescription label; providing the right medications to the right resident; common medications; the importance of taking medications as prescribed; recognition of side effects and adverse reactions and procedures to follow when residents appear to be experiencing side effects and adverse reactions; documentation and record keeping; and medication storage and disposal. Training shall include demonstrations of proper techniques, including techniques for infection control, and ensure unlicensed staff have adequately demonstrated that they have acquired the skills necessary to provide such assistance. (b) The training must be provided by a registered nurse or licensed pharmacist who shall issue a training certificate to a trainee who demonstrates, in person and both physically and verbally, the ability to: 1. Read and understand a prescription label; 2. Provide assistance with self-administration in accordance with section 429.256, F.S., and rule 59A-36.008, F.A.C., including: a. Assist with oral dosage forms, topical dosage forms, and topical ophthalmic, otic and nasal dosage forms; b. Measure liquid medications, break scored tablets, and crush tablets in accordance with prescription directions; c. Recognize the need to obtain clarification of an "as needed" prescription order; d. Recognize a medication order which requires judgment or discretion, and to advise the resident, resident's health care provider or facility employer of inability to assist in the administration of such orders; e. Complete a medication observation record; f. Retrieve and store medication; g. Recognize the general signs of adverse reactions to medications and report such reactions; h. Assist residents with insulin syringes that are prefilled with the proper dosage by a pharmacist and insulin pens that are prefilled by the manufacturer by taking the medication, in its previously dispensed, properly labeled container, from where it is stored, and bringing it to the resident for self-injection; i. Assist with nebulizers; j. Use a glucometer to perform blood glucose testing; k. Assist residents with oxygen nasal cannulas and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) devices, excluding the titration of the oxygen levels; l. Apply and remove anti-embolism stockings and hosiery; m. Placement and removal of colostomy bags, excluding the removal of the flange or manipulation of the stoma site; and, n. Measurement of blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, and respiratory rate. (c) Unlicensed persons, as defined in section 429.256(1)(b), F.S., who provide assistance with self-administered medications and have successfully completed the initial 6 hour training, must obtain, annually, a minimum of 2 hours of continuing education training on providing assistance with self-administered medications and safe medication practices in an assisted living facility. The 2 hours of continuing education training may be provided online. (d) Trained unlicensed staff who, prior to the effective date of this rule, assist with the self-administration of medication and have successfully completed 4 hours of assistance with self-administration of medication training must complete an additional 2 hours of training that focuses on the topics listed in sub-

Corrected Mar 10, 2026

BACKGROUND SCREENING CLEARINGHOUSE435.12 Care Provider Background Screening Clearinghouse.

BACKGROUND SCREENING CLEARINGHOUSE435.12 Care Provider Background Screening Clearinghouse.- (2)(b) Until such time as the fingerprints are enrolled in the national retained print arrest notification program at the Federal Bureau of Investigation: 1. A person with a break in service of more than 90 days from a position that requires screening by a specified agency must submit to a national screening if the person returns to a position that requires screening by a specified agency. 2. Effective January 1, 2026, or a later date as determined by the Agency for Health Care Administration, for the participation of qualified entities in the clearinghouse under s. 435.12, a person with a break in service of more than 90 days from a position for which screening is conducted by a qualified entity participating in the clearinghouse must submit to a national screening if the person returns to a position for which screening is conducted by a qualified entity. (c) An employer of persons subject to screening or a qualified entity participating in the clearinghouse must register with the clearinghouse and maintain the employment or affiliation status of all persons included in the clearinghouse. 1. Before January 1, 2024, initial status and any changes in status must be reported within 10 business days after a person receives his or her initial status or after a change in the person ' s status has been made. 2. Effective January 1, 2024, initial status and any changes in status must be reported within 5 business days after a person receives his or her initial status or after a change in the person ' s status has been made. (d) An employer or a qualified entity participating in the clearinghouse must register with and initiate all criminal history checks through the clearinghouse before referring an employee or potential employee or a person with a current or potential affiliation with a qualified entity for electronic fingerprint submission to the Department of Law Enforcement. The registration must include the person ' s full first name, middle initial, and last name; social security number; date of birth; mailing address; sex; and race. Individuals, persons, applicants, and controlling interests that cannot legally obtain a social security number must provide an individual taxpayer identification number.

Corrected Mar 10, 2026

BACKGROUND SCREENING; PROHIBITED OFFENSES408.809 Background screening; prohibited offenses

BACKGROUND SCREENING; PROHIBITED OFFENSES408.809 Background screening; prohibited offenses.- (1) Level 2 background screening pursuant to chapter 435 must be conducted through the agency on each of the following persons, who are considered employees for the purposes of conducting screening under chapter 435: (a) The licensee, if an individual. (b) The administrator or a similarly titled person who is responsible for the day-to-day operation of the provider. (c) The financial officer or similarly titled individual who is responsible for the financial operation of the licensee or provider. (d) Any person who is a controlling interest. (e) Any person, as required by authorizing statutes, seeking employment with a licensee or provider who is expected to, or whose responsibilities may require him or her to, provide personal care or services directly to clients or have access to client funds, personal property, or living areas; and any person, as required by authorizing statutes, contracting with a licensee or provider whose responsibilities require him or her to provide personal care or personal services directly to clients, or contracting with a licensee or provider to work 20 hours a week or more who will have access to client funds, personal property, or living areas. Evidence of contractor screening may be retained by the contractor's employer or the licensee. (3) All fingerprints must be provided in electronic format. Screening results shall be reviewed by the agency with respect to the offenses specified in s. 435.04 and this section, and the qualifying or disqualifying status of the person named in the request shall be maintained in a database. The qualifying or disqualifying status of the person named in the request shall be posted on a secure website for retrieval by the licensee or designated agent on the licensee's behalf. (4) In addition to the offenses listed in s. 435.04, all persons required to undergo background screening pursuant to this part or authorizing statutes must not have an arrest awaiting final disposition for, must not have been found guilty of, regardless of adjudication, or entered a plea of nolo contendere or guilty to, and must not have been adjudicated delinquent and the record not have been sealed or expunged for any of the following offenses or any similar offense of another jurisdiction: (a) Any authorizing statutes, if the offense was a felony. (b) This chapter, if the offense was a felony. (c) Section 409.920, relating to Medicaid provider fraud. (d) Section 409.9201, relating to Medicaid fraud. (e) Section 741.28, relating to domestic violence. (f) Section 777.04, relating to attempts, solicitation, and conspiracy to commit an offense listed in this subsection. (g) Section 784.03, relating to battery, if the victim is a vulnerable adult as defined in s. 415.102 or a patient or resident of a facility licensed under chapter 395, chapter 400, or chapter 429. (h) Section 817.034, relating to fraudulent acts through mail, wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectronic, or photooptical systems. (i) Section 817.234, relating to false and fraudulent insurance claims. (j) Section 817.481, relating to obtaining goods by using a false or expired credit card or other credit device, if the offense was a felony. (k) Section 817.50, relating to fraudulently obtaining goods or services from a health care provider. (l) Section 817.505, relating to patient brokering. (m) Section 817.568, relating to criminal use of personal identification information. (n) Section 817.60, relating to obtaining a credit card through fraudulent means. (o) Section 817.61, relating to fraudulent use of credit cards, if the offense was a felony. (p) Section 831.01, relating to forgery. (q) Section 831.02, relating to uttering forged instruments. (r) Section 831.07, relating to forging bank bills, checks, drafts, or promissory notes. (s) Section 831.09, relating to uttering forged bank bills, checks, drafts, or promissory notes. (t) Section 831

Corrected Mar 10, 2026

PHYSICAL RESTRAINTS

PHYSICAL RESTRAINTS

PHYSICAL RESTRAINTS(8) PHYSICAL RESTRAINTS. Residents for whom a physician has prescribed a physical restraint must have a written care plan for the use of the physical restraint. The care plan must be developed within 14 days of the device being prescribed, and prior to use on the resident. (a) The care plan must specify: 1. The device prescribed for use; 2. The maximum amount of time the resident is to have the restraint applied each day; and, 3. In what manner and frequency staff will monitor, observe, and report to the physician any injuries, increase in agitation, signs and symptoms of depression, or decline in mobility or function related to the use of the prescribed restraint. (b) Facility staff must ensure that the device is applied appropriately and safely. (c) The resident's physician must review the appropriateness of the continued use of the physical restraint annually, and documentation of this review must be maintained in the resident's record. If the resident's ability to independently remove or avoid the device fluctuates, the device must be considered a physical restraint and all requirements of this subsection apply.

Corrected Dec 16, 2025

MEDICATION - ASSISTANCE WITH SELF-ADMIN429.256

MEDICATION

MEDICATION - ASSISTANCE WITH SELF-ADMIN429.256 (3) Assistance with self-administration of medication includes: (a) Taking the medication, in its previously dispensed, properly labeled container, from where it is stored, and bringing it to the resident. For purposes of this paragraph, an insulin syringe that is prefilled with the proper dosage by a pharmacist and an insulin pen that is prefilled by the manufacturer are considered medications in previously dispensed, properly labeled containers. (b) In the presence of the resident, confirming that the medication is intended for that resident, orally advising the resident of the medication name and dosage, opening the container, removing a prescribed amount of medication from the container, and closing the container. The resident may sign a written waiver to opt out of being orally advised of the medication name and dosage. The waiver must identify all of the medications intended for the resident, including names and dosages of such medications, and must immediately be updated each time the resident's medications or dosages change. (c) Placing an oral dosage in the resident's hand or placing the dosage in another container and helping the resident by lifting the container to his or her mouth. (d) Applying topical medications. (e) Returning the medication container to proper storage. (f) Keeping a record of when a resident receives assistance with self-administration under this section. (g) Assisting with the use of a nebulizer, including removing the cap of a nebulizer, opening the unit dose of nebulizer solution, and pouring the prescribed premeasured dose of medication into the dispensing cup of the nebulizer. (4) Assistance with self-administration of medication does not include: (a) Mixing, compounding, converting, or calculating medication doses, except for measuring a prescribed amount of liquid medication or breaking a scored tablet or crushing a tablet as prescribed. (b) The preparation of syringes for injection or the administration of medications by any injectable route. (c) Administration of medications by way of a tube inserted in a cavity of the body. (d) Administration of parenteral preparations. (e) The use of irrigations or debriding agents used in the treatment of a skin condition. (f) Assisting with rectal, urethral, or vaginal preparations. (g) Assisting with medications ordered by the physician or health care professional with prescriptive authority to be given "as needed," unless the order is written with specific parameters that preclude independent judgment on the part of the unlicensed person, and the resident requesting the medication is aware of his or her need for the medication and understands the purpose for taking the medication. (h) Medications for which the time of administration, the amount, the strength of dosage, the method of administration, or the reason for administration requires judgment or discretion on the part of the unlicensed person. (5) Assistance with the self-administration of medication by an unlicensed person as described in this section shall not be considered administration as defined in s. 465.003. 59A-36.008 (3) ASSISTANCE WITH SELF-ADMINISTRATION. (a) Any unlicensed person providing assistance with self-administration of medication must be 18 years of age or older, trained to assist with self administered medication pursuant to the training requirements of Rule 59A-36.011, F.A.C., and must be available to assist residents with self-administered medications in accordance with procedures described in Section 429.256, F.S. and this rule. (b) In addition to the specifications of Section 429.256(3), F.S., assistance with self-administration of medication includes, orally advising the resident of the name and dosage of the medication and verbally prompting a resident to take medications as prescribed. (c) In order to facilitate assistance with self-administration, trained staff may prepare and make available such items as water, ju

Corrected Mar 10, 2026

MEDICATION - RECORDS

MEDICATION

MEDICATION - RECORDS(5) MEDICATION RECORDS. (a) For residents who use a pill organizer managed in subsection (2), the facility must keep either the original labeled medication container; or a medication listing with the prescription number, the name and address of the issuing pharmacy, the health care provider's name, the resident's name, the date dispensed, the name and strength of the drug, and the directions for use. (b) The facility must maintain a daily medication observation record for each resident who receives assistance with self-administration of medications or medication administration. A medication observation record must be immediately updated each time the medication is offered or administered and include: 1. The name of the resident and any known allergies the resident may have; 2. The name of the resident's health care provider and the health care provider's telephone number; 3. The name, strength, and directions for use of each medication; and, 4. A chart for recording each time the medication is taken, any missed dosages, refusals to take medication as prescribed, or medication errors. (c) For medications that serve as chemical restraints, the facility must, pursuant to Section 429.41, F.S., maintain a record of the prescribing physician's annual evaluation of the use of the medication.

Corrected Mar 10, 2026

STAFFING STANDARDS - ADMINISTRATORS429.176 Notice of change of administrator.-If, during t

STAFFING STANDARDS

STAFFING STANDARDS - ADMINISTRATORS429.176 Notice of change of administrator.-If, during the period for which a license is issued, the owner changes administrators, the owner must notify the agency of the change within 10 days and provide documentation within 90 days that the new administrator meets educational requirements and has completed the applicable core educational requirements under s. 429.52. A facility may not be operated for more than 120 consecutive days without an administrator who has completed the core educational requirements. 429.52 (4) A facility administrator must complete the required core training, including the competency test, within 90 days after the date of employment as an administrator. Failure to do so is a violation of this part and subjects the violator to an administrative fine as prescribed in s. 429.19. Administrators licensed in accordance with part II of chapter 468 are exempt from this requirement. Other licensed professionals may be exempted, as determined by the agency by rule. (5) Administrators are required to participate in continuing education for a minimum of 12 contact hours every 2 years. 59A-36.010 (1) ADMINISTRATORS. Every facility must be under the supervision of an administrator who is responsible for the operation and maintenance of the facility including the management of all staff and the provision of appropriate care to all residents as required by chapters 408, part II, 429, part I, F.S., and rule chapter 59A-35, F.A.C., and this rule chapter. (a) An administrator must: 1. Be at least 21 years of age; 2. If employed on or after October 30, 1995, have, at a minimum, a high school diploma or G.E.D.; 3. Be in compliance with Level 2 background screening requirements pursuant to sections 408.809 and 429.174, F.S.; 4. Complete the core training and core competency test requirements pursuant to rule 59A-36.011, F.A.C., no later than 90 days after becoming employed as a facility administrator. Administrators who attended core training prior to July 1, 1997, are not required to take the competency test unless specified elsewhere in this rule; and, 5. Satisfy the continuing education requirements pursuant to rule 59A-36.011, F.A.C. Administrators who are not in compliance with these requirements must retake the core training and core competency test requirements in effect on the date the non-compliance is discovered by the agency or the department. (b) In the event of extenuating circumstances, such as the death of a facility administrator, the agency may permit an individual who otherwise has not satisfied the training requirements of subparagraph (1)(a)4. of this rule, to temporarily serve as the facility administrator for a period not to exceed 90 days. During the 90 day period, the individual temporarily serving as facility administrator must: 1. Complete the core training and core competency test requirements pursuant to rule 59A-36.011, F.A.C.; and, 2. Complete all additional training requirements if the facility maintains licensure as an extended congregate care or limited mental health facility. (c) Administrators may supervise a maximum of either three assisted living facilities or a group of facilities on a single campus providing housing and health care Administrators who supervise more than one facility must appoint in writing a separate manager for each facility. However, an administrator supervising a maximum of three assisted living facilities, each licensed for 16 or fewer beds and all within a 15 mile radius of each other, is only required to appoint two managers to assist in the operation and maintenance of those facilities. (d) An individual serving as a manager must satisfy the same qualifications, background screening, core training and competency test requirements, and continuing education requirements as an administrator pursuant to paragraph (1)(a) of this rule. Managers who attended the core training program prior to April 20, 1998, are not required to take the competen

Corrected Mar 10, 2026

STAFFING STANDARDS - STAFF

STAFFING STANDARDS

STAFFING STANDARDS - STAFF(2) STAFF. (a) Within 30 days after beginning employment, newly hired staff must submit a written statement from a health care provider documenting that the individual does not have any signs or symptoms of communicable disease. The examination performed by the health care provider must have been conducted no earlier than 6 months before submission of the statement. Newly hired staff does not include an employee transferring without a break in service from one facility to another when the facility is under the same management or ownership. 1. Evidence of a negative tuberculosis examination must be documented on an annual basis. Documentation provided by the Florida Department of Health or a licensed health care provider certifying that there is a shortage of tuberculosis testing materials satisfies the annual tuberculosis examination requirement. An individual with a positive tuberculosis test must submit a health care provider's statement that the individual does not constitute a risk of communicating tuberculosis. 2. If any staff member has, or is suspected of having, a communicable disease, such individual must be immediately removed from duties until a written statement is submitted from a health care provider indicating that the individual does not constitute a risk of transmitting a communicable disease. (b) Staff must be qualified to perform their assigned duties consistent with their level of education, training, preparation, and experience. Staff providing services requiring licensing or certification must be appropriately licensed or certified. All staff must exercise their responsibilities, consistent with their qualifications, to observe residents, to document observations on the appropriate resident's record, and to report the observations to the resident's health care provider in accordance with this rule chapter. (c) All staff must comply with the training requirements of rule 59A-36.011, F.A.C. (d) An assisted living facility contracting to provide services to residents must ensure that individuals providing services are qualified to perform their assigned duties in accordance with this rule chapter. The contract between the facility and the staffing agency or contractor must specifically describe the services the staffing agency or contractor will provide to residents. (e) For facilities with a licensed capacity of 17 or more residents, the facility must: 1. Develop a written job description for each staff position and provide a copy of the job description to each staff member; and, 2. Maintain time sheets for all staff. (f) Level 2 background screening must be conducted for staff, including staff contracted by the facility to provide services to residents, pursuant to sections 408.809 and 429.174, F.S.

Corrected Dec 16, 2025

TRAINING - FIRST AID AND CPR

TRAINING

TRAINING - FIRST AID AND CPR(5) FIRST AID AND CARDIOPULMONARY RESUSCITATION (CPR). A staff member who has completed courses in First Aid and CPR and holds a currently valid card documenting completion of such courses must be in the facility at all times. (a) Documentation that the staff member possess current CPR certification that requires the student to demonstrate, in person, that he or she is able to perform CPR and which is issued by an instructor or training provider that is approved to provide CPR training by the American Red Cross, the American Heart Association, the National Safety Council, or an organization whose training is accredited by the Commission on Accreditation for Pre-Hospital Continuing Education satisfies this requirement. (b) A nurse shall be considered as having met the training requirement for First Aid. An emergency medical technician or paramedic currently certified under chapter 401, Part III, F.S., shall be considered as having met the training requirements for both First Aid and C.P.R.

Corrected Dec 16, 2025

RECORDS - FACILITY59A-36.015 Records

RECORDS

RECORDS - FACILITY59A-36.015 Records. The facility must maintain required records in a manner that makes such records readily available at the licensee's physical address for review by a legally authorized entity. If records are maintained in an electronic format, facility staff must be readily available to access the data and produce the requested information. For purposes of this section, "readily available" means the ability to immediately produce documents, records, or other such data, either in electronic or paper format, upon request. (1) FACILITY RECORDS. Facility records must include: (a) The facility's license displayed in a conspicuous and public place within the facility. (b) An up-to-date admission and discharge log listing the names of all residents and each resident's: 1. Date of admission, the facility or place from which the resident was admitted, and if applicable, a notation indicating that the resident was admitted with a stage 2 pressure sore; and, 2. Date of discharge, reason for discharge, and identification of the facility or home address to which the resident was discharged. Readmission of a resident to the facility after discharge requires a new entry in the log. Discharge of a resident is not required if the facility is holding a bed for a resident who is out of the facility but intending to return pursuant to Rule 59A-36.018, F.A.C. If the resident dies while in the care of the facility, the log must indicate the date of death. (c) A log listing the names of all temporary emergency placement and respite care residents if not included on the log described in paragraph (b). (d) The facility's emergency management plan, with documentation of review and approval by the county emergency management agency, as described in Rule 59A-36.019, F.A.C., that must be readily available by facility staff. (e) The facility's liability insurance policy required in Rule 59A-36.013, F.A.C. (f) For facilities that have a surety bond, a copy of the surety bond currently in effect as required by Rule 59A-36.013, F.A.C. (g) The admission package presented to new or prospective residents (less the resident's contract) described in Rule 59A-36.006, F.A.C. (h) If the facility advertises that it provides special care for persons with Alzheimer's disease or related disorders, a copy of all such facility advertisements as required by Section 429.177, F.S. (i) A grievance procedure for receiving and responding to resident complaints and recommendations as described in Rule 59A-36.007, F.A.C. (j) All food service records required in Rule 59A-36.012, F.A.C., including menus planned and served and county health department inspection reports. Facilities that contract for food services, must include a copy of the contract for food services and the food service contractor's license or certificate to operate. (k) All fire safety inspection reports issued by the local authority or the State Fire Marshal pursuant to Section 429.435, F.S., and rule Chapter 69A-40, F.A.C., issued within the last 2 years. (l) All sanitation inspection reports issued by the county health department pursuant to Section 381.031, F.S., and Chapter 64E-12, F.A.C., issued within the last 2 years. (m) Pursuant to Section 429.35, F.S., all completed survey, inspection and complaint investigation reports, and notices of sanctions and moratoriums issued by the agency within the last 5 years. (n) The facility's resident elopement response policies and procedures. (o) The facility's documented resident elopement response drills. (p) The facility's policies and procedures pursuant to subsection 59A-36.007(10), F.A.C.; (q) The facility's abuse prevention policies and procedures; (r) The facility's medication practices; (s) The facility's policy on physical restraints; (t) The facility's policy on assistive devices; (u) The facility's policy on third-party providers; (v) The facility's policy on visitation pursuant to Section 408.823(2)(a), F.S.; (w) For facilit

Corrected Dec 16, 2025

Originally licensed

First Florida AHCA license date on record for this community. Later inspections and fines appear above as newer events.