Assisted LivingDeland, FLAHCA #11911436Updated September 24, 2026
Searching for Woodland Towers deficiencies? This landing page summarizes Florida AHCA inspection data for this assisted living in Deland, FL: Class I–IV counts, complaints, and a dated timeline of public findings so you can tour with clearer questions.
On this page: Class I–IV totals, 2 complaints, and 7 dated timeline events.
Public AHCA Class I–IV rollup for Woodland Towers.
Woodland Towers has a relatively light deficiency profile. Review Class III/IV details and complaint history before deciding.
Dated findings, fines, corrections, and license milestones · 7 events on record. Newest first.
First Florida AHCA license date on record for this community. Later inspections and fines appear above as newer events.
MEDICATION
MEDICATION - LABELING AND ORDERS(7) MEDICATION LABELING AND ORDERS. (a) The facility may not store prescription drugs for self-administration, assistance with self-administration, or administration unless they are properly labeled and dispensed in accordance with chapters 465 and 499, F.S., and rule 64B16-28.108, F.A.C. If a customized patient medication package is prepared for a resident, and separated into individual medicinal drug containers, then the following information must be recorded on each individual container: 1. The resident's name; and, 2. The identification of each medicinal drug in the container. (b) Except with respect to the use of pill organizers as described in subsection (2), no individual other than a pharmacist may transfer medications from one storage container to another. (c) If the directions for use are "as needed" or "as directed," the health care provider must be contacted and requested to provide revised instructions. For an "as needed" prescription, the circumstances under which it would be appropriate for the resident to request the medication and any limitations must be specified; for example, "as needed for pain, not to exceed 4 tablets per day." The revised instructions, including the date they were obtained from the health care provider and the signature of the staff who obtained them, must be noted in the medication record, or a revised label must be obtained from the pharmacist. (d) Any change in directions for use of a medication that the facility is administering or providing assistance with self-administration must be accompanied by a written, faxes, or electronic copy of a medication order issued and signed by the resident's health care provider. The new directions must promptly be recorded in the resident's medication observation record. The facility may then obtain a revised label from the pharmacist or place an "alert" label on the medication container that directs staff to examine the revised directions for use in the medication observation record. (e) A nurse may take a medication order by telephone. Such order must be promptly documented in the resident's medication observation record. The facility must obtain a written medication order from the health care provider within 10 working days. A faxed or electronic copy of a signed order is acceptable. (f) The facility must make every reasonable effort to ensure that prescriptions for residents who receive assistance with self-administration of medication or medication administration are filled or refilled in a timely manner. (g) Pursuant to section 465.0276(5), F.S., and rule 61N-1.006, F.A.C., sample or complimentary prescription drugs that are dispensed by a health care provider, must be kept in their original manufacturer's packaging, which must include the practitioner's name, the resident's name for whom they were dispensed, and the date they were dispensed. If the sample or complimentary prescription drugs are not dispensed in the manufacturer's labeled package, they must be kept in a container that bears a label containing the following: 1. Practitioner's name, 2. Resident's name, 3. Date dispensed, 4. Name and strength of the drug, 5. Directions for use; and, 6. Expiration date. (h) Pursuant to section 465.0276(2)(c), F.S., before dispensing any sample or complimentary prescription drug, the resident's health care provider must provide the resident with a written prescription, or a faxed or electronic copy of such order.
Corrected Mar 4, 2021
EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT PLANNING408.821 Emergency management planning; emergency operations; inactive license.- (1) A licensee required by authorizing statutes and agency rule to have a comprehensive emergency management plan must designate a safety liaison to serve as the primary contact for emergency operations. Such licensee shall submit its comprehensive emergency management plan to the local emergency management agency, county health department, or Department of Health as follows: (a) Submit the plan within 30 days after initial licensure and change of ownership, and notify the agency within 30 days after submission of the plan. (b) Submit the plan annually and within 30 days after any significant modification, as defined by agency rule, to a previously approved plan. (c) Submit necessary plan revisions within 30 days after notification that plan revisions are required. (d) Notify the agency within 30 days after approval of its plan by the local emergency management agency, county health department, or Department of Health. (2) An entity subject to this part may temporarily exceed its licensed capacity to act as a receiving provider in accordance with an approved comprehensive emergency management plan for up to 15 days. While in an overcapacity status, each provider must furnish or arrange for appropriate care and services to all clients. In addition, the agency may approve requests for overcapacity in excess of 15 days, which approvals may be based upon satisfactory justification and need as provided by the receiving and sending providers. (3)(a) An inactive license may be issued to a licensee subject to this section when the provider is located in a geographic area in which a state of emergency was declared by the Governor if the provider: 1. Suffered damage to its operation during the state of emergency. 2. Is currently licensed. 3. Does not have a provisional license. 4. Will be temporarily unable to provide services but is reasonably expected to resume services within 12 months. (b) An inactive license may be issued for a period not to exceed 12 months but may be renewed by the agency for up to 12 additional months upon demonstration to the agency of progress toward reopening. A request by a licensee for an inactive license or to extend the previously approved inactive period must be submitted in writing to the agency, accompanied by written justification for the inactive license, which states the beginning and ending dates of inactivity and includes a plan for the transfer of any clients to other providers and appropriate licensure fees. Upon agency approval, the licensee shall notify clients of any necessary discharge or transfer as required by authorizing statutes or applicable rules. The beginning of the inactive licensure period shall be the date the provider ceases operations. The end of the inactive period shall become the license expiration date, and all licensure fees must be current, must be paid in full, and may be prorated. Reactivation of an inactive license requires the prior approval by the agency of a renewal application, including payment of licensure fees and agency inspections indicating compliance with all requirements of this part and applicable rules and statutes. (4) The agency may adopt rules relating to emergency management planning, communications, and operations. Licensees providing residential or inpatient services must utilize an online database approved by the agency to report information to the agency regarding the provider's emergency status, planning, or operations.
Corrected Mar 4, 2021
ADMISSIONS
ADMISSIONS - HEALTH ASSESSMENT429.26 (4) If possible, each resident shall have been examined by a licensed physician, a licensed physician assistant, or a licensed nurse practitioner within 60 days before admission to the facility. The signed and completed medical examination report shall be submitted to the owner or administrator of the facility who shall use the information contained therein to assist in the determination of the appropriateness of the resident's admission and continued stay in the facility. The medical examination report shall become a permanent part of the record of the resident at the facility and shall be made available to the agency during inspection or upon request. An assessment that has been completed through the Comprehensive Assessment and Review for Long-Term Care Services (CARES) Program fulfills the requirements for a medical examination under this subsection and s. 429.07(3)(b)6. (5) Except as provided in s. 429.07, if a medical examination has not been completed within 60 days before the admission of the resident to the facility, a licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or licensed nurse practitioner shall examine the resident and complete a medical examination form provided by the agency within 30 days following the admission to the facility to enable the facility owner or administrator to determine the appropriateness of the admission. The medical examination form shall become a permanent part of the record of the resident at the facility and shall be made available to the agency during inspection by the agency or upon request. (6) Any resident accepted in a facility and placed by the department or the Department of Children and Families shall have been examined by medical personnel within 30 days before placement in the facility. The examination shall include an assessment of the appropriateness of placement in a facility. The findings of this examination shall be recorded on the examination form provided by the agency. The completed form shall accompany the resident and shall be submitted to the facility owner or administrator. Additionally, in the case of a mental health resident, the Department of Children and Families must provide documentation that the individual has been assessed by a psychiatrist, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, or psychiatric nurse, or an individual who is supervised by one of these professionals, and determined to be appropriate to reside in an assisted living facility. The documentation must be in the facility within 30 days after the mental health resident has been admitted to the facility. An evaluation completed upon discharge from a state mental hospital meets the requirements of this subsection related to appropriateness for placement as a mental health resident providing it was completed within 90 days prior to admission to the facility. The applicable department shall provide to the facility administrator any information about the resident that would help the administrator meet his or her responsibilities under subsection (1). Further, department personnel shall explain to the facility operator any special needs of the resident and advise the operator whom to call should problems arise. The applicable department shall advise and assist the facility administrator where the special needs of residents who are recipients of optional state supplementation require such assistance. 58A-5.0181 (2) HEALTH ASSESSMENT. As part of the admission criteria, an individual must undergo a face-to-face medical examination completed by a health care provider as specified in either paragraph (a) or (b) of this subsection. (a) A medical examination completed within 60 calendar days before to the individual's admission to a facility pursuant to Section 429.26(4), F.S. The examination must address the following: 1. The physical and mental status of the resident, including the identification of any health-related problems and functional limitations; 2. An evaluation of whether the ind
Corrected Apr 16, 2018
MEDICATION
MEDICATION - ASSISTANCE WITH SELF-ADMIN(3) ASSISTANCE WITH SELF-ADMINISTRATION. (a) Any unlicensed person providing assistance with self administration of medication must be 18 years of age or older, trained to assist with self administered medication pursuant to the training requirements of Rule 58A-5.0191, F.A.C., and must be available to assist residents with self-administered medications in accordance with procedures described in Section 429.256, F.S. and this rule. (b) In addition to the specifications of Section 429.256(3), F.S., assistance with self-administration of medication includes verbally prompting a resident to take medications as prescribed. (c) In order to facilitate assistance with self-administration, trained staff may prepare and make available such items as water, juice, cups, and spoons. Trained staff may also return unused doses to the medication container. Medication, which appears to have been contaminated, must not be returned to the container. (d) Trained staff must observe the resident take the medication. Any concerns about the resident's reaction to the medication or suspected noncompliance must be reported to the resident's health care provider and documented in the resident's record. (e) When a resident who receives assistance with medication is away from the facility and from facility staff, the following options are available to enable the resident to take medication as prescribed: 1. The health care provider may prescribe a medication schedule that coincides with the resident's presence in the facility; 2. The medication container may be given to the resident, a friend, or family member upon leaving the facility, with this fact noted in the resident's medication record; 3. The medication may be transferred to a pill organizer pursuant to the requirements of subsection (2), and given to the resident, a friend, or family member upon leaving the facility, with this fact noted in the resident's medication record; or 4. Medications may be separately prescribed and dispensed in an easier to use form, such as unit dose packaging; (f) Assistance with self-administration of medication does not include the activities detailed in Section 429.256(4), F.S. 1. As used in Section 429.256(4)(h), F.S., the term "competent resident" means that the resident is cognizant of when a medication is required and understands the purpose for taking the medication. 2. As used in Section 429.256(4)(i), F.S., the terms "judgment" and "discretion" mean interpreting vital signs and evaluating or assessing a resident's condition.
Corrected Apr 16, 2018
RESIDENT CARE
RESIDENT CARE - ELOPEMENT STANDARDS(8) ELOPEMENT STANDARDS. (a) Residents Assessed at Risk for Elopement. All residents assessed at risk for elopement or with any history of elopement must be identified so staff can be alerted to their needs for support and supervision. 1. As part of its resident elopement response policies and procedures, the facility must make, at a minimum, a daily effort to determine that at risk residents have identification on their persons that includes their name and the facility ' s name, address, and telephone number. Staff attention must be directed towards residents assessed at high risk for elopement, with special attention given to those with Alzheimer ' s disease or related disorders assessed at high risk. 2. At a minimum, the facility must have a photo identification of at risk residents on file that is accessible to all facility staff and law enforcement as necessary. The facility ' s file must contain the resident ' s photo identification within 10 days of admission or within 10 days of being assessed at risk for elopement subsequent to admission. The photo identification may be provided by the facility, the resident, or the resident ' s representative. (b) Facility Resident Elopement Response Policies and Procedures. The facility must develop detailed written policies and procedures for responding to a resident elopement. At a minimum, the policies and procedures must provide for: 1. An immediate search of the facility and premises; 2. The identification of staff responsible for implementing each part of the elopement response policies and procedures, including specific duties and responsibilities; 3. The identification of staff responsible for contacting law enforcement, the resident ' s family, guardian, health care surrogate, and case manager if the resident is not located pursuant to subparagraph (8)(b)1.; and 4. The continued care of all residents within the facility in the event of an elopement. (c) Facility Resident Elopement Drills. The facility must conduct and document resident elopement drills pursuant to Sections 429.41(1)(a)3. and 429.41(1)(l), F.S.
Corrected Oct 10, 2017
BACKGROUND SCREENING; PROHIBITED OFFENSES408.809 Background screening; prohibited offenses.- (1) Level 2 background screening pursuant to chapter 435 must be conducted through the agency on each of the following persons, who are considered employees for the purposes of conducting screening under chapter 435: (a) The licensee, if an individual. (b) The administrator or a similarly titled person who is responsible for the day-to-day operation of the provider. (c) The financial officer or similarly titled individual who is responsible for the financial operation of the licensee or provider. (d) Any person who is a controlling interest if the agency has reason to believe that such person has been convicted of any offense prohibited by s. 435.04. For each controlling interest who has been convicted of any such offense, the licensee shall submit to the agency a description and explanation of the conviction at the time of license application. (e) Any person, as required by authorizing statutes, seeking employment with a licensee or provider who is expected to, or whose responsibilities may require him or her to, provide personal care or services directly to clients or have access to client funds, personal property, or living areas; and any person, as required by authorizing statutes, contracting with a licensee or provider whose responsibilities require him or her to provide personal care or personal services directly to clients. Evidence of contractor screening may be retained by the contractor's employer or the licensee. (3) All fingerprints must be provided in electronic format. Screening results shall be reviewed by the agency with respect to the offenses specified in s. 435.04 and this section, and the qualifying or disqualifying status of the person named in the request shall be maintained in a database. The qualifying or disqualifying status of the person named in the request shall be posted on a secure website for retrieval by the licensee or designated agent on the licensee's behalf. (4) In addition to the offenses listed in s. 435.04, all persons required to undergo background screening pursuant to this part or authorizing statutes must not have an arrest awaiting final disposition for, must not have been found guilty of, regardless of adjudication, or entered a plea of nolo contendere or guilty to, and must not have been adjudicated delinquent and the record not have been sealed or expunged for any of the following offenses or any similar offense of another jurisdiction: (a) Any authorizing statutes, if the offense was a felony. (b) This chapter, if the offense was a felony. (c) Section 409.920, relating to Medicaid provider fraud. (d) Section 409.9201, relating to Medicaid fraud. (e) Section 741.28, relating to domestic violence. (f) Section 777.04, relating to attempts, solicitation, and conspiracy to commit an offense listed in this subsection. (g) Section 817.034, relating to fraudulent acts through mail, wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectronic, or photooptical systems. (h) Section 817.234, relating to false and fraudulent insurance claims. (i) Section 817.481, relating to obtaining goods by using a false or expired credit card or other credit device, if the offense was a felony. (j) Section 817.50, relating to fraudulently obtaining goods or services from a health care provider. (k) Section 817.505, relating to patient brokering. (l) Section 817.568, relating to criminal use of personal identification information. (m) Section 817.60, relating to obtaining a credit card through fraudulent means. (n) Section 817.61, relating to fraudulent use of credit cards, if the offense was a felony. (o) Section 831.01, relating to forgery. (p) Section 831.02, relating to uttering forged instruments. (q) Section 831.07, relating to forging bank bills, checks, drafts, or promissory notes. (r) Section 831.09, relating to uttering forged bank bills, checks, drafts, or promissory notes. (s) Section 831.30, relating to fraud in obtaining medi
Corrected Oct 10, 2017
Florida groups assisted living violations into four classes by how serious the risk is to residents (Fla. Stat. §§ 408.813, 429.19).
Conditions that present an imminent danger to residents or a substantial probability of death or serious physical or emotional harm.
Typical ALF fine: $5,000-$10,000 per violation (ALF). Highest severity. Must be corrected quickly, often within 24 hours.
Conditions that directly threaten the physical or emotional health, safety, or security of residents (short of Class I).
Typical ALF fine: $1,000-$5,000 per violation (ALF). Direct risk to resident well-being; fines apply even after correction.
Conditions that indirectly or potentially threaten resident health, safety, or security.
Typical ALF fine: $500-$1,000 per violation (ALF). Potential harm if left uncorrected; correction deadlines are specified.
Conditions related to operations, reports, or paperwork that do not threaten resident health, safety, or security.
Typical ALF fine: $100-$200 per violation (ALF). Lowest severity; often administrative. Fines may be waived if corrected on time.
Common questions families ask when researching Woodland Towers inspection history in Deland, FL.
Yes. Woodland Towers has 6 public deficiencies on the AHCA/CMS totals we track. Review the class breakdown and timeline on this page for dates and categories.
Woodland Towers has 6 deficiencies on the public totals we track.
Florida grades assisted living deficiencies Class I through IV by how serious the risk is to residents. Class I is imminent danger; Class IV is typically paperwork with no direct resident threat. Use the class chart on this page to see how this community's totals break down.
No fine amount is published on the current rollup. AHCA lists 2 complaints on file.
Totals come from Florida AHCA Health Finder public facility comparison data (deficiency class counts, complaints, and fines).
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Woodland Towers deficiency data is compiled from Florida AHCA public facility comparison fields and CMS Provider Data Catalog where available (page data refreshed September 24, 2026). Facilities may contest findings; always verify with the latest official inspection report before making a care decision.